
Therefore it matters much to the gravity of a sin whether one departs more or less from the rectitude of reason: and accordingly we must say that sins are not all equal.
To commit sin is unlawful on account of some inordinateness therein: wherefore those which contain a greater inordinateness are more unlawful, and consequently graver sins.” – St. Thomas Aquinas (“Summa Theologica” 13th century A.D.)
“If any man see his brother sin a sin [which is] not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it. All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death.” – 1 John 5:16-17
“Jesus answered, Thou couldest have no power at all against me, except it were given thee from above: therefore he that delivered me unto thee hath the greater sin.” – John 19:11
“And the Lord said, Because the cry of Sodom and Gomorrah is great, and because their sin is very grievous…” – Genesis 18:20
I do not understand the Protestants’ stance on “sin being sin” with no matter of “degree” of evil or wickedness. There is no “difference” if one steals a nickel from his/her mother’s purse or commits mass murder? That makes no sense to me. I believe God is a fair and just judge (Deut. 32:4; John 5:30) and that the degree of sin will determine the degree of punishment.
Why in Exodus does God specifically differentiate “punishments” for different sins if all sins are “equal” in the eyes of God? Why is the punishment for all sins in the above passages from Exodus, not death?
How can the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah be “very grievous” in Genesis 18:20 if all sins are the same? The words “very grievous” themselves distinguish the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah.
What is a “great” sin as opposed to another sin in Genesis 20:9? Again, “great” is a word distinguishing a “lesser” sin from a “greater” one.
In John 19:11, Jesus Himself uses the words “greater sin.” If all sins are the same, how can one be “greater” than the other?